1.
_____ increases the likelihood that a behavior will occur, whereas _____ decreases that likelihood.
A.
Operant conditioning; classical conditioning
B.
Higher order conditioning; operant conditioning
C.
Positive reinforcement; negative reinforcement
D.
Reinforcement; punishment
2.
A relatively permanent change in behavior or behavior potential as a result of practice or experience is called _____.
A.
training
B.
knowledge
C.
intuition
D.
learning
3.
Ten days in a row Frank felt a static electric shock when he kissed his wife on the living room carpet. Now he feels mildly anxious whenever he approaches his wife to kiss her. In classical conditioning, his wife was a(n) _____ stimulus ten days ago, and has now become a(n) _____ stimulus.
A.
unconditioned; conditioned
B.
unconditioned; neutral
C.
neutral; unconditioned
D.
neutral; conditioned
4.
A neutral stimulus that, through conditioning, produces a reflexive response is now called a(n) _____.
A.
conditioned stimulus
B.
primary reinforcer
C.
secondary reinforcer
D.
classical stimulus
5.
When someone reinforces a series of successive steps that lead to a desired response, they are engaged in _____ a behavior.
A.
the continuous reinforcement of
B.
generalizing
C.
discriminating
D.
shaping
6.
Learning a response to a neutral stimulus when it is paired with a stimulus that causes a reflex response is called _____ conditioning; whereas learning that occurs when a response to an environmental cue is reinforced is called _____ conditioning.
A.
reflex; reinforcement
B.
operational; complex
C.
classical; operant
D.
basic; complex
7.
The
BEST
definition of a
cognitive map
is _____.
A.
a map that you describe using words rather than drawings
B.
a mental image of an area that a person or animal has previously navigated
C.
neuronal pathways produced when you think or learn something new
D.
a method of studying that maps your thoughts in a logical manner
8.
The chimpanzee in Kohler's
insight
experiment _____.
A.
used trial-and-error to reach a banana placed just out of reach
B.
turned its back on the banana out of frustration
C.
sat for a while, then used a stick to bring the banana within reach
D.
didn't like bananas
9.
Albert Bandura's social learning theory places a lot of emphasis on _____.
A.
classical conditioning
B.
operant conditioning
C.
extinction
D.
modeling
10.
A program that designates intervals at which a response is reinforced is called a _____.
A.
schedule of reinforcement
B.
reinforcement calendar
C.
reinforcement timetable
D.
none of these options
11.
In Pavlov's original classical conditioning experiments, the _____ was the neutral stimulus, the _____ was the stimulus that would elicit a reflex, and _____ was the reflexive response.
A.
meat powder; bell; salivation
B.
salivation; meat powder; ringing the bell
C.
bell; meat powder; salivation
D.
meat powder; salivation; ringing the bell
12.
If your dog was classically conditioned to wag his tail when you pick up a leash to go for a walk, what would extinguish this behavior?
A.
Take him for a walk without his leash.
B.
Pick up the leash without taking him for a walk.
C.
Use operant conditioning to teach him to recognize the word walk.
D.
Forget it, you cannot extinguish this behavior.
13.
___ occurs when neither the CS nor UCS has been presented for a long time; whereas _____ occurs when the CS is presented without the UCS, and usually takes less time.
A.
Unlearning; forgetting
B.
Forgetting; extinction
C.
Extinction; unlearning
D.
Forgetting; deconditioning
14.
A schedule of reinforcement in which the period of time varies from one reinforcement to the next is called a _____ schedule, and is best for producing _____ responses.
A.
mixed interval; haphazard
B.
variable interval; slow and steady
C.
rotating interval; repetitious
D.
variable ratio; slow and steady
15.
Primary reinforcers _____.
A.
do not need to be learned
B.
usually satisfy a biological need
C.
increase the probability of a response
D.
all of these options
16.
An event that increases the probability that a response will be repeated is called _____.
A.
a positive operation
B.
reinforcement
C.
an operational directive
D.
a discriminative stimulus
17.
The process of rewarding successive approximations of the desired behavior is called _____.
A.
extinction
B.
discrimination
C.
shaping
D.
generalization
18.
When your mouth waters at just the
mention
of chocolate cake, it is an example of _____.
A.
operant conditioning
B.
social learning
C.
vicarious conditioning
D.
classical conditioning
19.
A tendency to respond in the same way to stimuli that have similar characteristics is called _____.
A.
inflexibility
B.
compulsive behavior
C.
generalization
D.
recurring responsiveness
20.
Recall John Watson's classical conditioning of little Albert. If you wanted to use
higher order conditioning
to get little Albert to fear Barbie dolls, you would show him a Barbie doll with _____.
A.
a loud noise
B.
a loud noise AND the white rat
C.
the white rat
D.
no head
21.
Wartime propaganda often depicts the enemy as ugly, cruel, and somewhat less than human. This type of propaganda creates _____ toward the enemy.
A.
a negative conditioned emotional response
B.
a negative social learning environment
C.
positive punishment
D.
unconditional negative regard
22.
Operant conditioning involves _____, whereas classical conditioning involves _____.
A.
reflexes; consequences
B.
consequences; reflexes
C.
both of these options
D.
none of these options
23.
An external stimulus that does not ordinarily cause a reflex response or an emotional response is a(n) _____, whereas any stimulus that causes a reflex or emotional response without any learning is a(n) _____.
A.
inhibitory stimulus; instinctive response
B.
neutral stimulus; unconditioned stimulus
C.
classical stimulus; operant stimulus
D.
punishing stimulus; rewarding stimulus
24.
_____ is a severe, irrational fear of an object or situation, which may sometimes be thought of as a(n) _____.
A.
A nightmare; conditioned dream response
B.
An anxiety attack; immature response
C.
A phobia; conditioned emotional response
D.
Anxiety; unconditional expressive response
25.
Withdrawal, apathy, and severe depression may be due to _____.
A.
learned helplessness
B.
a submissive personality disorder
C.
underachievement
D.
negative reinforcement
26.
The process of repeating the contents of short-term memory over and over to keep it there is called _____.
A.
rote memorization
B.
mnemonic memory
C.
a reverberating circuit
D.
maintenance rehearsal
27.
An
interference task
prevents _____.
A.
maintenance rehearsal
B.
transference of information into long-term memory
C.
both of these options
D.
none of these options
28.
_____ is the process of grouping information into units in order to store more information in _____.
A.
Chunking; short-term memory
B.
Cheating; your wallet or purse
C.
Collecting; long-term memory
D.
Dual-coding; sensory memory
29.
The process of coding information by both visual and verbal means is called _____.
A.
bimodal processing
B.
dual-coding
C.
sensory redundancy
D.
levels of processing
30.
According to current memory researchers, _____ is an active part of LTM that moves information in and out of STM and processes that information in order to make judgments and solve problems.
A.
short-term memory
B.
working memory
C.
semantic memory
D.
episodic memory
31.
Based on REM sleep research, if you play an audio tape of your history class while you sleep you are most likely to remember _____ of the tape.
A.
nearly 100 percent
B.
75 to 95 percent
C.
10 to 50 percent
D.
none
32.
Which of the following is a source of long-term memory error?
A.
assumptions you make when taking in new information
B.
the inability to recall the dependability of the source for old information
C.
interference caused by new information
D.
all of these options
33.
Knowledge of facts and the relationships between them is called _____ memory, whereas knowledge of events is called _____ memory.
A.
informative; autobiographical
B.
factual; landmark
C.
semantic; episodic
D.
acquired; innate
34.
When recalling his childhood, Grandpa often says, "That was before the Frisco Quake," or "That was after the Frisco Quake." Gramps is using _____ to improve his _____ memory.
A.
redintegration; semantic
B.
a landmark event; episodic
C.
a retrieval cue; flashbulb
D.
a landmark event; short-term
35.
When we know the answer to a question, but can't quite get it out of our mouth, we are experiencing _____.
A.
reintegration
B.
retrospection
C.
the tip-of-the-tongue phenomenon
D.
dual-coding
36.
Relearning
is the process of learning material _____, which usually takes _____ time than original learning.
A.
over and over again; much more
B.
a second time; less
C.
similar to other material; less
D.
that is very complex; more
37.
The process of working unconsciously on a problem until it is solved is called _____.
A.
the Barnum effect
B.
the Zolific effect
C.
latent learning
D.
the Zeigarnik effect
38.
Your ability to vividly recall what you were doing when you heard about the World Trade Center attacks (or watched the freeway pursuit of OJ Simpson) is an example of _____.
A.
a flashbulb memory
B.
the Zeigarnik effect
C.
a memory flashback
D.
your lack of a real life
39.
_____ memories are believed to be real even though the events never occurred, whereas _____ memories are related to traumas that are buried in the unconscious.
A.
False; suppressed
B.
Flashbulb; repressed
C.
Invented; suppressed
D.
False; repressed
40.
Which of the following statements is
FALSE
with regard to
false
and
repressed memories
?
A.
Most people who witness violent crime or who are victims of traumatic abuse have trouble forgetting the event.
B.
Memory experts agree that remembering early childhood abuse years later is relatively common.
C.
It is possible to construct convincing false memories of events that never happened.
D.
all of these options are false
41.
The
serial position effect
suggests that people will remember _____ items better than _____ items on a list.
A.
middle and end; beginning
B.
beginning and end; middle
C.
beginning; middle or end
D.
end; middle or beginning
42.
Memory that is connected to emotional arousal is called _____, and will be remembered better when a person is _____.
A.
vivid-recall; hypnotized
B.
sympathetic memory; relaxed
C.
emotionally-charged; calmer
D.
state-dependent; in the same emotional state
43.
Tests make you nervous. You forgot there was a test today. Freud would suggest that his theory of _____ applies in this situation.
A.
defense mechanisms
B.
unconscious resistance
C.
passive aggressiveness
D.
motivated forgetting
44.
When new information interferes with the recall of previously learned information it is called _____ interference; when previously learned information interferes with the recall of new information it is called _____ interference.
A.
new; prior
B.
retroactive; proactive
C.
retrograde; anterograde
D.
neo-knowledge; previous-knowledge
45.
When brain injury due to physical or psychological trauma results in forgetting, it is called _____.
A.
motivated forgetting
B.
retrieval failure
C.
amnesia
D.
Alzheimer's disease
46.
There is some evidence that electroconvulsive shock therapy causes _____.
A.
neurotransmitter insufficiency
B.
damage to the hippocampus
C.
Alzheimer's disease
D.
retrograde amnesia
47.
A progressive mental deterioration characterized by severe memory loss that occurs most commonly in the elderly is called _____.
A.
senility
B.
dementia
C.
Alzheimer's disease
D.
age-related amnesia
48.
Which of the following has
NOT
been identified as a possible cause of Alzheimer's disease?
A.
genetics
B.
a slow-acting virus
C.
the accumulation of amyloid protein in the brain
D.
the degenerative effects of unidentified toxins in the environment
49.
Eidetic imagery
is _____.
A.
the ability to store and retrieve clear and detailed pictures
B.
visual imagery that lacks color
C.
visual imagery that is a mirror image of the original stimuli
D.
visual imagery that is confusing because several images are superimposed
50.
_____ devices improve memory organization by "tagging" information visually or verbally.
A.
Eidetic imagery
B.
Mnemonic
C.
Reverberating circuit
D.
ECS
51.
An individual's relatively stable and enduring pattern of thoughts, feelings, and actions is known as _____.
A.
character
B.
trait
C.
temperament
D.
personality
52.
Two important criteria for evaluating the usefulness of tests used to assess personality are _____.
A.
concurrence and prediction
B.
reliability and validity
C.
consistency and correlation
D.
diagnosis and prognosis
53.
Which of the following is
NOT
used by a psychologist to assess someone's personality?
A.
direct observation
B.
a structured interview
C.
an unstructured interview
D.
objective handwriting analysis
54.
According to your text, the major objective of the MMPI-2 is to _____.
A.
determine whether a patient's locus of control is normal
B.
assess a person's propensity to lie or distort the truth
C.
diagnose psychological disorders
D.
all of these options
55.
The
Rorschach inkblot test
and the
Thematic Apperception Test
are examples of _____.
A.
aptitude and achievement tests
B.
projective personality tests
C.
the most reliable and valid personality tests
D.
culturally biased personality tests
56.
A relatively stable and consistent characteristic that can be used to describe someone is known as a _____.
A.
character
B.
trait
C.
temperament
D.
personality
57.
The trait theory that explains personality in terms of openness, conscientiousness, extroversion, agreeableness, and neuroticism is called the _____.
A.
BEACH theory
B.
five-factor model
C.
factor analysis theory
D.
Cattell and Eysenck model
58.
Harmony just learned that her brother is gay, and wants him to know that she cares about him. She compliments him before he leaves for school by saying, "I really like your skirt...I mean shirt." This could be an example of _____.
A.
homophobia
B.
a socially undesirable remark
C.
a Freudian slip
D.
conditional positive regard
59.
In the iceberg analogy of Freud's three levels of consciousness, the _____ is the largest part and is _____.
A.
subconscious; just below the surface
B.
preconscious; just below the surface
C.
unconscious; completely hidden beneath the surface
D.
nonconscious; completely hidden beneath the surface
60.
According to Freud, the thoughts and information that you are completely aware of right now is called your _____, and the part that you can easily bring to awareness is called your _____.
A.
psyche; subconscious
B.
id; ego
C.
ego; id
D.
conscious; preconscious
61.
The _____ operates on the
pleasure principle
, seeking immediate gratification. The _____ operates on the
reality principle
, and the _____ contains the conscience and ego-ideal, which provide moral guidance for the ego.
A.
psyche; ego; id
B.
id; ego; superego
C.
conscious; preconscious; unconscious
D.
oral stage; anal stage; phallic stage
62.
To prevent _____ that is associated with the ego's failure to satisfy both the id and superego, people develop and use _____.
A.
unconscious guilt; archetypes
B.
fixation; an ego-ideal
C.
regression; preconscious cognitions
D.
conscious anxiety; defense mechanisms
63.
Fred is angry at his father because his father has taken away his car keys for a month. Fred yells at his little sister when she comes into his room without knocking. This is an example of the
defense mechanism
called _____.
A.
displacement
B.
projection
C.
sublimation
D.
regression
64.
Nelson drinks 8 to 12 beers every weekday, and more on weekends. Nelson vehemently protests that he is not an alcoholic because he only drinks beer and can hold a job. This is an example of the
defense mechanism
called _____.
A.
denial
B.
projection
C.
reaction formation
D.
intellectualization
65.
The first and most basic
defense mechanism
, which blocks unacceptable impulses from coming into awareness, is called _____.
A.
regression
B.
oppression
C.
repression
D.
denial
66.
According to Freud, if an individual's needs were _____ during a particular stage of development, that person would remain stuck at that stage.
A.
overindulged
B.
frustrated
C.
overindulged or frustrated
D.
none of these options
67.
Neo-Freudians emphasized the influence of _____ in personality development to a greater extent than Freud.
A.
genetic and evolutionary factors
B.
early childhood experiences
C.
anxiety and conflict
D.
social and cultural factors
68.
Adler believed the primary motivation in life is to overcome _____.
A.
feelings of inferiority
B.
feelings of superiority
C.
Oedipal anxiety
D.
collective unconscious fears of the anima and animus
69.
According to Jung, our
collective unconscious
consists of _____.
A.
inherited, primitive images and archetypes
B.
one's cultural architecture
C.
the "archaeology of the soul"
D.
all of these options
70.
Jung believed that the anima and animus represent _____.
A.
opposing forces in the superego
B.
the life and death instincts
C.
feminine and masculine components of personality
D.
good and evil aspects of the id
71.
Two theorists associated with the humanistic perspective of personality development are _____.
A.
Watson and Skinner
B.
Freud and Jung
C.
Rogers and Maslow
D.
Horney and Adler
72.
The innate tendency toward growth that motivates an individual to strive for the full realization of his or her highest potential is called _____.
A.
self-realization
B.
self-promotion
C.
self-actualization
D.
self-potentiation
73.
According to Bandura, _____ involves a person's belief about whether he or she can successfully engage in behaviors related to personal goals.
A.
self-actualization
B.
self-esteem
C.
self-efficacy
D.
self-congruence
74.
Your beliefs about who or what is in charge of the outcomes in your life is/are called your _____.
A.
environmental expectancies
B.
locus of control
C.
outcome contingencies
D.
cognitive power
75.
High-sensation seekers and extroverts tend to have ______ compared to introverts, which may be an inherited characteristic.
A.
lower levels of physiological arousal
B.
higher levels of physiological arousal
C.
lower levels of psychological arousal
D.
higher levels of psychological arousal
76.
Which of the following statements is
TRUE
regarding abnormal behavior?
A.
Mental disorders are signs of personal weakness.
B.
Many mentally ill individuals work at moderate- and high-level jobs.
C.
Mental illness is permanent.
D.
Violence is the most common symptom of mental disorders.
77.
_____ is the specialized branch of
medicine
that deals with the diagnosis, treatment, and prevention of mental disorders.
A.
Psychology
B.
Psychiatry
C.
Psychobiology
D.
Psychodiagnostics
78.
_____ is a legal term for someone who cannot be held responsible for his or her actions because of a mental illness.
A.
Neurosis
B.
Psychosis
C.
Insanity
D.
Incompetence
79.
Rosenhan and his colleagues were admitted to mental hospitals with a diagnosis of _____ because they claimed to have _____.
A.
schizophrenia; auditory hallucinations
B.
bipolar disorder; delusions of grandeur
C.
multiple personality disorder; voices in their heads
D.
paranoia; auditory hallucinations
80.
Anxiety disorders
are _____.
A.
characterized by unrealistic, irrational fear
B.
the least frequent of the mental disorders
C.
twice as common in men as in women
D.
all of these options
81.
Chronic, uncontrollable, excessive worrying about nothing in particular is associated with _____, while sudden inexplicable episodes of intense fear is associated with _____.
A.
panic attack; hysteria
B.
hysteria; post-traumatic stress disorder
C.
generalized anxiety disorder; panic disorder
D.
obsessive-compulsive disorder; a panic attack
82.
A(n) _____ is characterized by an intense, irrational fear of a specific object or situation.
A.
panic attack
B.
panic disorder
C.
hysterical disorder
D.
phobia
83.
A(n) _____ is characterized by diffuse anxiety caused by recurring, uncontrollable, intrusive thoughts and irresistible urges to perform senseless rituals.
A.
generalized anxiety disorder
B.
agoraphobic disorder
C.
obsessive-compulsive disorder
D.
ritual abuse
84.
People who experience feelings of terror and helpless during a life-threatening event, and recurrent flashbacks, nightmares, emotional numbness, and impaired concentration afterwards are _____.
A.
suffering from a psychosomatic illness
B.
experiencing post-traumatic stress disorder
C.
having a nervous breakdown
D.
weaker than people who take such events in stride
85.
The two main types of mood disorders are _____.
A.
major depression & bipolar disorder
B.
obsessions & compulsion
C.
SAD & MAD
D.
learned helplessness & suicide
86.
_____ is an excessive and unreasonable state of excitement and impulsive behavior.
A.
Hyperarousal
B.
Mania
C.
Compulsivity
D.
Elation
87.
Someone who experiences episodes of mania or cycles between mania and depression has a _____.
A.
disruption of circadian rhythms
B.
bipolar disorder
C.
manic-depressive syndrome
D.
cyclothymia disorder
88.
Which of the following is
TRUE
regarding suicide?
A.
People who talk about it won't do it.
B.
Only depressed or psychotic people commit suicide.
C.
A family history of suicide increases a person's risk for suicide.
D.
Women successfully commit suicide more often than men.
89.
Which of the following data is correctly associated with
schizophrenia
?
A.
1 in 100 people develops schizophrenia
B.
schizophrenia usually develops in adolescence or young adulthood
C.
almost 50% of all hospitalized patients suffer from schizophrenia
D.
all of these options
90.
This is an example of a
hallucination
.
A.
hearing voices that aren't really there
B.
seeing a bridge and believing it is the gateway to heaven
C.
smelling a flower and believing its odor belongs to a skunk
D.
walking into a tree because you didn't see it
91.
A person with
schizophrenia
is more likely to _____ than _____.
A.
have negative symptoms; positive ones
B.
be self-destructive; violent toward others
C.
display violence; restraint
D.
become catatonic; commit suicide
92.
_____ symptoms of
schizophrenia
refer to "excess" behaviors such as hallucinations, whereas _____ symptoms refer to "deficits" such as flattened emotions or loss of activity.
A.
Alpha; beta
B.
Type a; type b
C.
Hyper; hypo
D.
Positive; negative
93.
Psychotic symptoms similar to those found in schizophrenia can also occur with the use of _____.
A.
alcohol
B.
microwave ovens
C.
amphetamines
D.
satellite TV
94.
Amnesia, fugue, and multiple personality disorders share this characteristic.
A.
a splitting apart of a painful experience from consciousness
B.
damage to the hippocampus, which is involved in memory
C.
a splitting apart of reality and fantasy
D.
low self-esteem
95.
Egocentrism, lack of a conscience, impulsive behavior, and likability are characteristic of someone _____.
A.
in the manic phase of a bipolar disorder
B.
with schizophrenia in remission
C.
with a narcissistic personality disorder
D.
with an antisocial personality disorder
96.
The most common psychiatric problem in males is _____.
A.
antisocial personality disorder
B.
cocaine abuse
C.
generalized anxiety disorder
D.
alcoholism
97.
Co-morbidity
is the term used to indicate _____.
A.
the presence of two family members with the same disease in the same family
B.
the death of two or more family members from the same disorder
C.
the presence of two or more disorders in the same person at the same time
D.
all of these options
98.
Repetitive, ritualistic behaviors such as handwashing, counting, or putting things in order that are associated with an anxiety state are called _____.
A.
obsessions
B.
compulsions
C.
ruminations
D.
phobias
99.
A major difference between major depressive and bipolar disorder is that only in bipolar disorders do people have _____.
A.
hallucinations or delusions
B.
depression
C.
a biochemical imbalance
D.
manic episodes
100.
For people with seasonal affective disorder, depression occurs during the _____.
A.
winter
B.
spring
C.
summer
D.
fall
This is the end of the test. When you have completed all the questions and reviewed your answers, press the button below to grade the test.