1. Tarantism and lycanthropy are examples of
B.mass madness.
C.physical pathology causing mental illness.
D.disorders that were treated with trephination.

2. Bernheim and Liébault used hypnotic suggestion to induce hysterical disorders in "normal" people, providing support for which perspective of abnormality?

3. "The Devil made me do it!" would be a believable reason for abnormal behaviors for
A.clergy of the Middle Ages.
B.ancient Roman physicians.
C.ancient Greek physicians.
D.von Krafft-Ebing.

4. The practice of trephination was probably used to
A.remove a part of the brain.
B.relieve pressure on the brain.
C.allow the release of evil spirits.
D.restore the balance among the four humors.

5. Bob is always down. His friends have given up trying to cheer him because nothing works. An ancient Greek physician would have labeled his condition

6. The basis for the moral treatment of asylum patients was the belief that
A.mental problems had a biological basis.
B.demonology was a cause of mental illness.
C.humane treatment would cure mental illness.
D.the cause of mental illness was immoral behavior.

7. Of the "four D's" that define psychological abnormality, the least common is

8. The history, values, and institutions of a society make up that society's

9. "Many people are not aware of the sources of their abnormality, because abnormality often arises from unconscious psychological processes; such people need insight about those processes." Who would agree most strongly with this statement?

10. Acquiring insight about unconscious conflicts is a feature of
A.moral therapy.
C.psychogenic therapy.
D.all psychological therapy.

11. The early psychogenic treatment that was advocated by Jean Charcot, Josef Breuer, and even Sigmund Freud was

12. People who are not impaired enough to need confinement in a mental hospital but who cannot live on their own sometimes live in supervised homes. Their behavior and medication are monitored, but they may leave in order to work and play each day. This sort of facility is part of
B.private psychotherapy.
C.the social welfare approach.
D.the community mental health approach.

13. As you are talking to your advisor, he stares at the wall and asks you if you see the ants crawling on it (there are none). Your advisor is
B.displaying a neurosis.
C.having a hallucination.
D.displaying a hysterical symptom.

14. Hippocrates attempted to treat mental disorders by
A.hypnotizing patients.
B.chaining patients to walls.
C.correcting underlying physical pathology.
D.encouraging patients to speak about past traumas.

15. Part of the downfall of moral therapy was that
A.it did not work for everyone.
B.it was shown to be completely ineffective.
C.the development of psychoanalysis replaced it.
D.the development of psychogenic drugs replaced it.

16. Hippocrates' model of mental illness would be described as

17. The first asylum was founded in
A.Paris, France.
B.Muslim Spain.
C.New York.
D.London, England.

18. As opposed to clinical practitioners, who search for individualistic understanding of human behavior, clinical researchers search for general truths about abnormality. The approach of clinical researchers is

19. A case study of a patient includes a history, tests, and interviews with associates. A clear picture is constructed of this individual so that her behavior is understood. This approach is

20. A characteristic that can change is called
A.a fact.
B.a variable.
C.a hypothesis.
D.an observation.

21. Freud's study of Little Hans involved
A.letters sent to Freud by Hans' father.
B.Freud's observation of Hans with horses.
C.Use of antianxiety medication.
D.Interviews with Hans' mother.

22. Case studies are helpful for all of the following reasons except that
A.their results may inspire new therapeutic techniques.
B.their results can be generalized.
C.they may be a source of new ideas about behavior.
D.they offer opportunities to study unusual problems.

23. The ability to generalize results from a study of certain individuals to other individuals not studied is called
A.construct validity.
B.context validity.
C.internal validity.
D.external validity.

24. A researcher finds that individuals who report large numbers of "hassles" in their lives usually also report higher levels of stress. Those who report fewer "hassles" generally report lower levels of stress. The correlation between number of "hassles" and stress level is

25. Which of the following correlation coefficients is of the highest magnitude?

26. Which of the following correlation coefficients represents the weakest relationship?

27. Factors other than the independent variable may also act on the dependent variable. If these factors vary systematically with the independent variable, they are called __________ variables.
C.blind variables
D.controlled variables

28. The following experiment is conducted to study the causes of aggression in children. Half the children eat a sugared cereal; the remaining half eat cornflakes. The number of aggressive acts displayed by the children in a one-hour play period after breakfast is then recorded. In this experiment,
A.sugared cereal is the dependent variable and cornflakes is the independent variable.
B.breakfast is the independent variable, and the group of children is the dependent variable.
C.the type of cereal is the dependent variable, and the number of aggressive responses is the independent variable.
D.the type of cereal is the independent variable, and the number of aggressive responses is the dependent variable.

29. In preparation for a study of the effectiveness of an antischizophrenia drug, an assistant puts all drugs into capsules of the same color and codes them. The assistant will have no part in administering the drug. Neither the subjects nor the experimenter will know who gets which drug. This is an example of a
A.single-blind design.
B.double-blind design.
C.triple-blind design.
D.quasi-experimental design

30. The function of the double-blind design is to guard against
A.participant expectancies.
B.experimenter expectancies.
C.both a and b.
D.neither a nor b.

31. A sugar pill used as the control condition in a drug study is a
C.random variable.
D.dependent variable.

32. Which of the following would be the best design to study the effects of disasters on the survivors?
A.an experiment
B.a quasi-experiment
C.a natural experiment
D.a double-blind strategy

33. Which of the following correlations is most likely to be statistically significant?
A.+.85, based on a sample of 10 people
B.-.08, based on a sample of 100 people
C.+.35, based on a sample of 10 people
D.-.80, based on a sample of 100 people

34. If stress levels and physical health are negatively correlated, we know that
A.stress causes people to have poor health.
B.as stress increases, health decreases.
C.poor health causes people to experience stress.
D.mental illness causes both stress and poor health.

35. A researcher finds a strong positive correlation between ratings of life stress and symptoms of depression. Therefore, the researcher may be confident that
A.life stress causes symptoms of depression.
B.symptoms of depression cause life stress.
C.both a and b.
D.neither a nor b.

36. Using generally accepted standards, what is the chance that a statistically significant result is due to chance?
B.5 percent
C.20 percent
D.It depends on the sample size.

37. The incidence of HIV+ results on campus tells you
A.one's risk for becoming HIV+.
B.the number of new HIV+ cases measured in a time period.
C.the total number of HIV+ cases at a given point.
D.the HIV+ rate compared to the national average.

38. The prevalence of sexual dysfunction in older men seen at a clinic tells you
A.the total number of older men with sexual dysfunction at the clinic.
B.the risk of a man developing a sexual dysfunction.
C.the number of new cases of sexual dysfunction over a period of time.
D.the rate of sexual dysfunction in the community.

39. In a scientific experiment, the variable manipulated or controlled by the experimenter is called the
A.confounding variable.
B.alternative variable.
C.dependent variable.
D.independent variable.

40. If researchers studied Vietnam veterans for 30 years after their return, the study would be

41. Studies that determine the incidence and prevalence of a disorder in a particular population are called
A.longitudinal studies.
B.correlational studies.
C.developmental studies.
D.epidemiological studies.

42. In single-subject experimental designs, the participant is observed and measured before the manipulation of an independent variable. This initial observation period is called the
A.reversal period.
B.baseline period.
C.normalization period.
D.standardization period.

43. The principle of informed consent assumes that
A.there is compensation.
B.the benefits outweigh the risks.
C.the participant can understand the explanation.
D.there are no risks in the study under consideration.

44. The paradigm adopted by people in the Middle Ages to explain abnormal behavior would have been

45. The model of abnormality that cites organic processes as being at the root of the behavior is the
A.biological model
B.sociocultural model
C.psychodynamic model
D.humanistic-existential model

46. The model of abnormality that cites society and culture as being at the root of the behavior is the
A.behavioral model
B.sociocultural model
C.psychodynamic model
D.humanistic-existential model

47. The model of abnormality that cites unconscious and internal processes and conflicts as being at the root of the behavior is the
A.cognitive model
B.behavioral model
C.sociocultural model
D.psychodynamic model

48. The model of abnormality that cites learning as being at the root of the behavior is the
A.behavioral model
B.sociocultural model
C.psychodynamic model
D.humanistic-existential model

49. The model of abnormality that cites the processes and content of thinking as being at the root of the behavior is the
A.cognitive model
B.behavioral model
C.sociocultural model
D.psychodynamic model

50. An important factor to consider in using drugs for the treatment of abnormality would be that
A.some people do not benefit from drugs alone
B.health plans do not pay for psychological drug treatments
C.drugs are not very effective in the treatment of schizophrenia
D.all of the above are important factors to consider

51. Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) is used most often in the treatment of
B.anxiety disorders
D.bipolar disorder

52. The treatment a patient would be least likely to receive is
A.drug therapy
D.all of the above are used about equally often

53. A person receiving an antipsychotic drug experiences extreme restlessness and severe shaking. These effects are considered
A.a normal and desirable part of the treatment
D.normal only if the person is experiencing bipolar disorder

54. The Vienna Psychoanalytic Society included all of the following except
A.Joseph Wolpe
B.Alfred Adler
C.Sigmund Freud
D.Carl Gustav Jung

55. Which of the following is true of psychological conflicts according to psychoanalysis?
A.They are always sexual in nature.
B.They are the cause of most abnormal behavior.
C.They are only a problem when they reach consciousness.
D.They are unconscious, and therefore not a factor in conscious experience.

56. What is the libido?
A.The same as the id.
B.The source of pleasure.
C.The sexual energy of the id.
D.The sum of the id's instinctual needs.

57. Moe had a grossly unhappy childhood. His needs were neglected and he was physically abused from time to time. Now, as an adult, he can not remember a thing about it. It never enters his mind. This is an example of the defense mechanism called

58. According to Freud's psychodynamic theory, ineffective interaction of the id, ego, and superego is usually seen as being caused by the parents. It can lead to entrapment at a developmental level. This is called

59. A general term used for theories such as Freud's, Adler's, and Jung's is

60. The largest group of today's psychotherapists describe their theoretical orientation as
D.contemporary psychodynamic

61. "When I was young, I met a large dog. I wasn't afraid of the dog, but as I tried to pet it, the dog snarled and jumped at me. I have been afraid of dogs ever since." A therapist who assumes this sentence describes a phobia acquired from classical conditioning most likely favors which model of abnormality?

62. A young child is ignored by parents until the child yells and throws toys ("temper tantrum"), at which time the parents give the child a good deal of attention. As time goes on, the temper tantrums become more and more common. A behavioral psychologist would say that the temper tantrums result from
A.unresolved intrapsychic conflict
B.operant conditioning rewards
C.unconditional positive regard
D.neurotransmitter imbalances

63. If, after conditioning, the conditioned stimulus is repeatedly presented alone (without the unconditioned stimulus), it will eventually stop eliciting the conditioned response through a process called

64. If you close your eyes and imagine biting into a big, juicy, sour lemon you are likely to salivate. The salivation is an example of
A.a conditioned stimulus
B.a conditioned response
C.an unconditioned stimulus
D.an unconditioned response

65. Jamal observed his parents' generous behavior throughout his childhood. As a result, he developed a positive and generous attitude toward the world. According to the behavioral model, Jamal has acquired his lifestyle through the process of
C.operant conditioning
D.classical conditioning

66. A client in a totally relaxed state vividly imagines formerly anxiety-arousing situations without feeling any lingering anxiety. Most likely, that client has just completed what type of therapy?
A.Freudian psychoanalysis
B.family systems
C.systematic desensitization

67. Systematic desensitization has been shown to be especially effective in the treatment of
A.bipolar disorders
D.substance abuse disorders

68. Compared to psychodynamic therapy, behavior therapy tends to be
A.shorter duration and lower cost
B.shorter duration but higher cost
C.longer duration but lower cost
D.longer duration and higher cost

69. "Thoughts, as well as overt behaviors, are acquired and modified by various forms of conditioning." The orientation of the author of this quote most likely would be

70. Henry goes into a fit of depression and self-abuse when anyone criticizes or expresses disapproval. Much of what he does is for the purpose of getting people to like him. Ellis would say that Henry's depression results in large part from
C.basic irrational assumptions
D.unconscious feelings of loss

71. The technique that uses X-rays of the brain taken at different angles to create a static picture of the structure of the brain is called
B.magnetic resonance imaging
C.positron emission tomography
D.computerized axial tomography

72. A woman with a potential sexual dysfunction would be most likely to be tested with a vaginal
A.positron emission tomograph (PET)
B.magnetic resonance imager (MRI)

73. The initial problem in studying the effectiveness of psychotherapy is
A.defining what the treatment is
B.the range and complexity of treatments available
C.defining what it means for a treatment to be successful
D.deciding how to measure improvement, whether to use self-report, behavioral observations, rating scales, or something else

74. A clinician gathers data about what things might be reinforcing to someone, in an attempt to find how an abnormal behavior might have been learned. This variety of assessment is called

75. Which of the following tests is likely to have the lowest reliability?
A.the MMPI
B.the Draw-a-Person Test
C.a social skills inventory
D.the Beck Depression Inventory

76. Compared to projective tests, personality inventories generally have
A.greater reliability and greater validity
B.greater reliability but poorer validity
C.poorer reliability but greater validity
D.poorer reliability and poorer validity

77. A therapist's preferred method of assessing abnormal behavior is to watch clients in their everyday environments and record their activities and behaviors. This approach is known as
B.battery observation
C.structured observation
D.naturalistic observation

78. A self-report inventory designed to measure an individual's reactions in a particular social situation would most likely be used by a __________ therapist.

79. DSM-IV, the most widely used classification system of mental disorders, divides the categories along five separate axes. The Axis I disorders are disorders
A.that relate to a person's general level of functioning
B.related to physiological ailments from which the person is currently suffering
C.that cause significant impairment and that may emerge and end at various points in the life cycle
D.that are long-standing and usually begin in childhood or adolescence, persisting in stable form into adult life

80. A clinician who is using naturalistic observation would be most likely to do which of the following?
A.observe parent-child interactions in an office setting
B.observe parent-child interactions in the family's home
C.have a parent self-monitor family interactions in an office setting
D.have a parent self-monitor family interactions at home

81. DSM-IV is the classification system for abnormal behaviors which is
A.used by the World Health Organization
B.most widely used in the U.S.
C.a and b
D.neither a nor b

82. The test with built-in items designed to detect things like lying and carelessness is the

83. The term used to refer to the comprehensive view of the causes and stimuli sustaining a person's abnormal behavior that a psychologist develops is
A.a model
B.a diagnosis
C.an interpretation
D.the clinical picture

84. Which of the following is most likely to be used to assess psychological impairment following neurological damage?
A.the MMPI-2
B.the Luria-Nebraska Battery
C.magnetic resonance imagery (MRI)
D.the Bender Visual-Motor Gestalt Test

85. Compared to projective tests, personality inventories
A.have higher validity
B.are less standardized
C.have lower reliability
D.are more difficult to administer and evaluate

86. Youssef is the kind of person who breaks laws and rules with no feeling of guilt. He would probably score high on the MMPI-2 scale called
D.psychopathic deviate

87. The test with the highest validity at identifying psychological disturbances is the
D.Draw-a-Person Test

88. Clients check off either "Applies" or "Does Not Apply" to a series of 200 items dealing with what they do and what they think in a variety of situations. The kind of test they are taking most likely is a(n)
A.projective test
B.personality inventory
C.neuropsychological battery
D.sentence-completion test

89. Axis III includes
A.long standing problems
B.any relevant general medical condition
C.any relevant psychosocial or environmental problem
D.vivid clinical syndromes that typically cause significant impairment

90. What kind of validity is most important to clinicians in evaluating the utility of a classification system?
A.face validity
B.internal validity
C.external validity
D.predictive validity

91. A mental health practitioner attempts to learn about the behavior and emotional state of each client. This approach to abnormal psychology is called

92. The assumption behind the use of projective tests as assessment tools is that
A.they are relatively easy to score
B.the responses come from the client's unconscious
C.they stimulate abnormal behaviors that the clinician can observe
D.patient responses to specific stimuli will uncover specific disorders

93. Axis IV includes
A.a global assessment of functioning
B.any relevant general medical condition
C.any relevant psychosocial or environmental problem
D.vivid clinical syndromes that typically cause significant impairment

94. A patient looks at a series of black-and-white pictures, making up a dramatic story about each. The patient is taking
A.the Rorschach Test
B.the Thematic Apperception Test
C.the Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory
D.an affective inventory

95. Imagine that you need to go talk with your professor about an assignment you thought was evaluated unfairly. Which one of the stages of this stressful situation would the following statement reflect? Talking to the professor wasn't as bad as I expected. I did OK I think.
A.preparing for a stressor
B.confronting a stressor
C.coping with feelings of being overwhelmed
D.reinforcing self-statements

96. Which of the following is an anxiety disorder?
B.bipolar disorder
C.major depression
D.obsessive-compulsive disorder

97. Someone interested in the effects of social change, poverty, and race on the risk for generalized anxiety disorders probably represents the __________ perspective.

98. According to Freud, a generalized anxiety disorder is most likely to result when
A.a person does not dream, and thus has no outlet for anxiety
B.anxiety is strong and defense mechanisms weak
C.a person never has a chance to experience trauma
D.anxiety is strong and defense mechanisms too strong

99. Which of the following is not an appropriate match?
A.Beck and cognitive therapy
B.Meichenbaum and stress inoculation training
C.Ellis and rational-emotive therapy
D.Rogers and existential therapy

100. Sigmund Freud believed that phobias result from the excessive use of the defense mechanisms called
A.projection and introjection
B.repression and introjection
C.projection and displacement
D.repression and displacement

101. Cognitive theorists believe that anxiety is induced by
A.maladaptive assumptions
B.lack of empathy
C.interpersonal loss
D.overactive id impulses

102. An intense and disabling fear of dogs would be categorized as
B.social phobia
C.specific phobia
D.generalized anxiety disorder

103. Imagine that you need to go talk with your professor about an assignment you thought was evaluated unfairly. Which one of the stages of this stressful situation would the following statement reflect? OK, take a slow, deep breath. I know I can do it.
A.preparing for a stressor
B.confronting a stressor
C.coping with feelings of being overwhelmed
D.reinforcing self-statements

104. In vicarious conditioning the client
A.directly confronts the feared object
B.observes the therapist confronting the feared object
C.imagines the therapist confronting the feared object
D.imagines himself or herself confronting the feared object

105. Your fear of spiders is debilitating because you are an entomologist. To treat this phobia, your therapist puts you in a room with spiders, even asking you to handle them. This technique might be used in
C.covert desensitization
D.systematic desensitization

106. Anxiety disorders differ from everyday experiences of fear and anxiety in
D.all of the above

107. A lasting and groundless fear of a specific object, activity, or situation is called a(n)
A.panic disorder
B.phobic disorder
C.generalized anxiety disorder
D.obsessive-compulsive disorder

108. Which of the following is not consistent with a psychodynamic explanation for the development of generalized anxiety? People with generalized anxiety
A.did not have excessive discipline or disturbed environments as children
B.tend to use repression and denial when asked to discuss their problems
C.had parents who were particularly protective of them as children
D.have difficulty remembering fear-arousing events they have experienced

109. The following is an example of which anxiety disorder? A person frequently goes to the emergency room complaining of shortness of breath, rapid heart rate, and feelings of impending death, although nothing medically is wrong.
A.generalized anxiety disorder
C.panic disorder
D.obsessive-compulsive disorder

110. If your therapist gave you homework that required you to challenge your faulty assumptions and replace them with healthier ones, the therapist would be using
A.cognitive- existential therapy
B.client-centered therapy
C.rational-emotive therapy
D.interpersonal-physio therapy

111. The gland that produces a hormone that is involved in the reaction to fearful and stressful situations is the
B.adrenal gland

112. You are suffering from arachnophobia. Your therapist first has you go through relaxation training, then has you construct a fear hierarchy and, finally, has you go through a phase of graded pairings of spiders and relaxation responses. This approach is called
C.implosive therapy
D.systematic desensitization

113. Teaching clients self-statements that they can use when confronted with anxiety provoking situations is the focus of
A.Albert Ellis
B.Aaron Beck
C.Joseph Wolpe
D.Donald Meichenbaum

114. "Please flex your biceps. Now release your biceps. Now flex your thigh. Now release it." These statements might be made by a therapist using
A.biofeedback training
B.EEG training
C.relaxation therapy
D.self-instruction therapy

115. Every once in a while Ona feels nervous to the point of terror. It seems to come on suddenly and randomly. Her experience is an example of a(an)
A.panic disorder
B.phobic disorder
C.generalized anxiety disorder
D.obsessive-compulsive disorder

116. Which theory states that people develop generalized anxiety disorders because they fail to receive unconditional positive regard as children and evaluate themselves with conditions of worth?
A.Pavlov's conditioning theory
B.Freud's psychoanalytic theory
C.Roger's client-centered theory
D.Ellis's rational-emotive theory

117. The group of hormones that appears to be most involved in anxiety reaction are the

118. One procedure used to treat phobic disorders involves having the therapist confront the feared object or situation while the fearful client observes. This is called
C.implosive therapy
D.systematic desensitization

119. If I believe that is a dire necessity for me to be loved or approved by everyone and that it is catastrophic if things are not the way I want them, I am displaying
A.existential anxiety
B.irrational assumptions
C.moral anxiety
D.conditions of worth

120. Generalized anxiety disorders are more common
A.in urbanized countries than in rural countries
B.in men than in women
C.years after rather than immediately after traumatic events
D.in wealthy people than in poor people

121. Evidence in support of the biological understanding of generalized anxiety is supported by the finding that
A.relatives of people with generalized anxiety are more likely to have it than nonrelatives
B.distant relatives of those with generalized anxiety are more likely to have it than close relatives
C.relatives share not only biological characteristics, but also similar environments
D.identical twins have more similar environments than fraternal twins

122. The most common mental disorders in the United States are the
A.mood disorders
B.anxiety disorders
C.personality disorders
D.sexual disorders

123. Steve is afraid of eating in public, expecting to be judged negatively, and to feel humiliated. As a result he always makes up excuses when asked out to eat. His diagnosis would probably be
A.a social phobia
B.a specific phobia
C.generalized anxiety disorder
D.post-traumatic stress disorder

124. The part of the body that releases hormones into the blood stream is the __________ system
A.nervous system
B.exocrine system
C.endocrine system
D.autonomic system

125. Neville is so afraid of airplanes that even a picture of one makes him sweat and tremble. Neville suffers from
A.social phobia
B.panic disorder
C.specific phobia
D.generalized anxiety disorder

126. Karla's phobia of small insects is
C.social phobia
D.specific phobia

127. The two most common of the anxiety disorders are
A.phobias and generalized anxiety disorders
B.posttraumatic stress disorders and social phobias
C.panic disorders and obsessive-compulsive disorders
D.generalized anxiety disorders and posttraumatic stress disorders

128. Which theoretical position explains the origin of anxiety disorders as the ineffective control of one's unacceptable impulses?
A.the behavioral approach
B.the humanistic approach
C.the sociocultural approach
D.the psychodynamic approach

129. Tom's fear of snakes is being treated in part by his learning to relax while he looks at a picture of a little snake. This therapy method is called
C.systematic desensitization
D.cognitive behavior therapy

130. Fear differs from anxiety in that
A.fear is to a specific threat and anxiety is more general
B.anxiety is more likely to lead to aggression than is fear
C.anxiety is to an interpersonal threat and fear is to an inanimate threat
D.all of the above

131. Davon watched his father recoil from the snake in fear. Now he is afraid of snakes. This apparent acquisition of fear of snakes is an example of
B.response discrimination
C.escape response
D.stimulus generalization

132. Apparently, people develop phobias more readily to such objects as spiders and the dark than they do to such objects as computers and radios. This observation supports the __________ explanation of phobias.

133. Posttraumatic stress disorders
A.begin immediately after the stress occurs.
B.last between 1 and 3 weeks.
C.don't begin until years after the traumatic event.
D.none of the above.

134. If one rehashes the day's events, critiquing herself each step of the way, asking herself if she had done the proper thing, she would be experiencing
A.obsessive wishes.
B.obsessive impulses.
C.obsessive images.
D.obsessive doubts.

135. A professor who puts on rubber gloves before grading papers and religiously avoids any contact with the hands of students is exhibiting a(n)
A.cleaning compulsion.
B.checking compulsion.
C.order compulsion.
D.touching compulsion.

136. Panic attacks are usually treated with cognitive therapy and/or
A.drug therapy.
B.habituation training.
C.classical conditioning.
D.response prevention therapy.

137. The cognitive explanation for panic disorders is that people who have them
A.have relatives who are atypically anxious.
B.are prone to allergies and have immune deficiencies.
C.misinterpret bodily sensations.
D.experience more stress than average.

138. Posttraumatic stress disorders
A.occur in adults and not children.
B.are more common in men than in women.
C.are most often triggered by academic trauma.
D.often occur with depression and substance abuse.

139. What proportion of Vietnam veterans suffered posttraumatic stress disorder?

140. Recent studies have found evidence that obsessive-compulsive disorders often respond to
A.neuroleptic drugs.
B.antipsychotic drugs.
C.anticonvulsant drugs.
D.antidepressant drugs.

141. One who made sure he had his passport, airplane ticket, and hotel reservation form exactly every 5 minutes for an entire day is exhibiting a(n)
A.cleaning compulsion.
B.checking compulsion.
C.order compulsion.
D.touching compulsion.

142. One distinction that DSM-IV makes between acute stress disorder and posttraumatic stress disorder is based on
A.how intense the anxiety-linked symptoms are.
B.what the cause of the anxiety-linked symptoms was.
C.how soon after the trauma the anxiety symptoms began.
D.what sort of treatment is contemplated for the anxiety-linked symptoms.

143. Laila washes her hands every 10 minutes. It interferes with her life. She cannot go out or get anything done. Laila's condition would best be described as
A.a phobia.
B.an obsession.
C.a compulsion.
D.generalized anxiety.

144. According to Freud, obsessive-compulsive disorders have their origin in the _______ stage of development.

145. If a professor had the notion that there were germs lurking everywhere, on papers students handed in, on books checked out of the library, on the chalk left by the previous teacher, the professor would be experiencing
A.obsessive wishes.
B.obsessive ideas.
C.obsessive images.
D.obsessive doubts.

146. The phobia most often associated with panic disorder is

147. What type of drug is Alprazolam (Xanax)?
D.major tranquilizer

148. Which of the following is the best example of "emotional anesthesia"?
A.feeling detached or estranged from others and loss of interest in activities
B.feelings of extreme guilt for surviving the traumatic event
C.reliving the event through day dreams and night dreams
D.excessive talking about the event in inappropriate settings

149. According to the psychodynamic perspective, if one keeps imagining engaging in immoral sexual behavior and repeatedly scrubs her face and hands in response to those thoughts,
A.the scrubbing represents a healthy coping response.
B.the immoral images represent id impulses.
C.the superego is helping the person avoid the id impulses.
D.ego defenses are not present.

150. "Everyone has intrusive and unwanted thoughts. Most people ignore them. But some people blame themselves and expect terrible consequences, so they act in ways they hope will neutralize the thoughts." The type of theorist most likely to agree with the quote would be a
A.psychodynamic theorist.
C.cognitive theorist.

151. The proportion of panic-attack sufferers who reach full, or nearly full, recovery because of antidepressant drugs is about
D.almost 100%.

152. A person with a panic disorder who is encouraged to go out, and is praised for efforts to do so, is probably receiving
A.exposure therapy.
B.cognitive therapy.
C.psychodynamic therapy.
D.medical therapy.

153. According to cognitive theorists, compulsive acts serve to _________ obsessive thoughts.

154. Investigators in the 1960s discovered that panic attacks could be reduced or eliminated by the use of
A.neuroleptic drugs.
B.antipsychotic drugs.
C.antidepressant drugs.
D.anticonvulsant drugs.

155. Dorian was only 10 miles away when Mt. St. Helens exploded with one of the largest blasts in history. There was ash and lava everywhere, and he was sure the was going to die. He was terrified to the core of his being. When rescue teams found him a week later, he was cold, hungry, and scared. More than a year later he still has nightmares and wakes up in a cold sweat. This description best fits
A.a phobia.
B.an acute stress disorder.
C.a generalized anxiety disorder.
D.a posttraumatic stress disorder.

156. Which of the following does not characterize stress disorders?
A.recurring memories, dreams, or nightmares about the event
B.a compulsive need to engage in activities that remind one of the event
C.reduced responsiveness to the world around one
D.signs of increased arousal, such as poor sleep and exaggerated startle reactions

157. Obsessive-compulsive disorder
A.typically lasts for only a short period of time.
B.is more common in men than in women.
C.usually begins in older adulthood.
D.is associated with depression and eating disorders.

158. People who experience a positive event, get excited, breath harder, and have an increase in their heart rate, then interpret the symptoms as a heart attack, are experiencing what cognitive theorists call
A.biological challenge.
B.behavioral inhibition.
C.anxiety sensitivity.
D.exposure relapse.

159. Rosa's heart was racing (from the 4 cups of coffee she had just finished), but she thought she might be having a heart attack. Her fear seemed to be increasing without end. This might be the beginning of a
A.panic attack.
B.manic episode.
C.specific phobia.
D.generalized anxiety attack.

160. How are obsessions and compulsions related?
A.Compulsions are a way to prevent obsessions from occurring.
B.Obsessions generally lead to violent or immoral compulsions.
C.Compulsions help people control their obsessions.
D.Obsessions are not related to compulsions.

161. Which of the following is most true concerning the use of drugs to deal with posttraumatic stress disorder in combat veterans?
A.Antianxiety drugs are used.
B.Antidepressants are used.
C.Both antianxiety drugs and antidepressants are used.
D.Drugs are not usually employed against posttraumatic stress disorder in combat veterans.

162. You notice someone who is sweating, experiencing shortness of breath, choking, feeling dizzy, and is afraid of dying. If it is not a heart attack but in fact an anxiety disorder, it is probably a
A.panic attack.
C.obsessive-compulsive response.
D.posttraumatic disorder.

163. Educating survivors about symptoms they might develop in the aftermath of a huge disaster is relevant to
A.providing referrals.
B.teaching self-helping skills.
C.diffusing anxiety, anger, and frustration.
D.normalizing people's responses to the disaster.

164. A pattern of anxiety, insomnia, depression, anorexia, and flashbacks that persists for a month or so after a horrible event is called
B.acute stress disorder.
C.generalized anxiety disorder.
D.posttraumatic stress disorder.

165. Recently, in addition to antidepressants, Alprazolam (Xanax) has been found to be successful in treating
B.panic disorders.
C.generalized anxiety disorders.
D.obsessive-compulsive disorders.

This is the end of the test. When you have completed all the questions and reviewed your answers, press the button below to grade the test.